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Derivative
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PostPosted: 00:05 - 13 Jun 2013    Post subject: Reply with quote

It strikes me that this whole '14 day' business seems incredibly arbitrary.

Why does the limit exist? Have there ever been any attempts to raise it?
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0l0dom0l0
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PostPosted: 00:23 - 13 Jun 2013    Post subject: Reply with quote

Derivative wrote:
It strikes me that this whole '14 day' business seems incredibly arbitrary.

Why does the limit exist? Have there ever been any attempts to raise it?


My guess is it's there to stop old fairy cake eating, tea drinking plod sitting on there fat arses for weeks at a time before sending out the NIP's. The two week rule is fantastic. I think it makes perfect sense.
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Spudly
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PostPosted: 07:34 - 13 Jun 2013    Post subject: Reply with quote

Genuine question here, why isn't sickpup's interpretation act and so on applicable here? If they can show they have sent the document in time, then surely the driver would have no comeback?
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stinkwheel
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PostPosted: 08:08 - 13 Jun 2013    Post subject: Reply with quote

NIPs are usually franked, not stamped. The franking mark has the date on it which would generally be taken to be when it was actually posted.

That's why it is important to keep the envelope.
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trevor saxe-coburg-gotha
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PostPosted: 08:32 - 13 Jun 2013    Post subject: Reply with quote

But surely an envelope with a stamp on it is franked? That's what prevents the stamp being used again. Or are we talking about different kinds of stamp here? Anyway, let's just take the example of a pre-paid envelope for a second - those may or may not be franked. I don't know. But they kind of don't need to be, because once they are opened it's difficult to re-use them. Unlike with stamped envelopes where it is possible to soak the stamp off and use it again if it hasn't been franked. However, this has actually become more difficult in recent times because stamps are now often self-adhesive and much more difficult to remove, once attached to an envelope.
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Islander
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PostPosted: 08:51 - 13 Jun 2013    Post subject: Reply with quote

Franking is done at the mail originator's premises - it's passed through the franking machine which puts the franking mark on with the date and value simultaneously and can be taken as the date of posting. Mail is usually franked and collected on the same day whereas the postmark is stamped on the envelope to cancel the stamp at the sorting office and may not necessarily be the actual date of posting. For example if there's a sorting office strike or some other delay then the mail might not be postmarked for days or even weeks.
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trevor saxe-coburg-gotha
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PostPosted: 09:04 - 13 Jun 2013    Post subject: Reply with quote

Okay - got it. Karma
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J.M.
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PostPosted: 09:31 - 13 Jun 2013    Post subject: Reply with quote

Spudly wrote:
Genuine question here, why isn't sickpup's interpretation act and so on applicable here? If they can show they have sent the document in time, then surely the driver would have no comeback?


With SORN the onus is on you to prove that you sent it. That's written in to legislation. Suckpup's defence works on the fact that they have to prove that you didn't send it.
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Rogerborg
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PostPosted: 13:44 - 13 Jun 2013    Post subject: Reply with quote

Cheers, that is rather surprising though.

Interpretations Act 1978 says: "Where an Act authorises or requires any document to be served by post (whether the expression “serve” or the expression “give” or “send” or any other expression is used) then, unless the contrary intention appears, the service is deemed to be effected by properly addressing, pre-paying and posting a letter containing the document and, unless the contrary is proved, to have been effected at the time at which the letter would be delivered in the ordinary course of post. "

However, there's a peculiar quirk in the RTOA 1988 in that is says:

"A notice required by this section to be served on any person may be served on that person—
[...]
(1) (c)by sending it by registered post, recorded delivery service or first class post addressed to him at his last known address."

...but...

"(2) A notice shall be deemed for the purposes of subsection (1)(c) above to have been served on a person if it was sent by registered post or recorded delivery service addressed to him at his last known address, notwithstanding that the notice was returned as undelivered or was for any other reason not received by him."

Now, I wonder if the court may have misinterpreted (2) as saying that it is only deemed as served if it's registered or recorded, but that's not at all what it says. It says that it is considered served by those methods even if there's no record of delivery.

Since it was 1st class post though, none of that matters, the Interpretations Act should have kicked in and it should have been considered served irrespective of any bawwwing about a "postal strike". Because if this chap can say "Sure I got it but it was late and you can't prove otherwise" then why couldn't anyone argue exactly that? Or better, "Never got it, so wasn't served."

tl;dr - good news, but I think it was badly bungled by the Clown Prosecution Service and that court, and I wouldn't expect it to stand.
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ficedula
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PostPosted: 21:11 - 13 Jun 2013    Post subject: Reply with quote

I'd've thought the key part was:

Quote:

and, unless the contrary is proved, to have been effected at the time at which the letter would be delivered in the ordinary course of post. "


IOW, the Interpretations Act says that we'll assume the letter is delivered at the time it would be under normal postal service unless you can prove otherwise.

Since in this case, the prosecution admitted the letter arrived late, I guess that would be proving the contrary? And so the assumption about going by normal delivery times wouldn't apply in that case. Although if anybody has actual legal knowledge feel free to chip in...

As Roger noted, the RTOA also has an extra exemption for registered or recorded services, that those count as served regardless of delivery or timing, but they didn't use either of those.
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Rogerborg
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PostPosted: 22:04 - 13 Jun 2013    Post subject: Reply with quote

I have no idea how you'd provide proof that an unrecorded letter was delivered at any particular time.

By bungled I mean that I expect the chap paid for a solicitor to slip that claim in among some fancy 4 syllable words and the CPS paper shuffler got all confuddled and missed their chance to refute it.
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